Theo 3

“Response to Hildegard of Bingen on the Creation of Man and Woman” Article 6.23 When reading the article the first time through the immediate reaction was…this was written by a woman! I had been under the impression that women of the 12th Century were not noted for having “….established a reputation as a theological and spiritual writer…” The basis for me picking this passage for reflection was for two reasons: the complementary nature of man …

…because He was born of a woman. However, Christ doesn’t have an earthly father to show that He is the Son of God, not of man. How then does she say that man signifies the divinity of Christ??? I wonder if it had anything to do with the time period she lived and wrote in, would she still hold fast to that statement today? Maybe you could explain this to me Dr. Purdy. Thanks